Security Forces End of Block 2 Practice Test

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• What is the purpose of entry/exit checks?
• Which threat level includes small scale, irregular forces?
• FPCON Charlie corresponds to what threat description?
• OSINT process consists of four steps (4 d's) Which of the following is a step in the OSINT process?
• Which statement describes FPCON Delta?
• Access control prevents unauthorized entry into which areas?
• Imagery (IMINT)
• Entry Controllers can initiate stop-check-pass.
• Code 4 refers to which category?
• Level 1 threat is described as which of the following?
• FPCON Alpha corresponds to which threat description?
• Which term describes representation of objects reproduced on cameras, or other media. Also includes photos, sensors, infrared sensors, lasers and electro optics
• Which term describes intelligence collected by technological resources?
• Which statement about RAM is true?
• Who determines when, where, and how to implement random checks of vehicles or pedestrians?
• Which asset is NOT explicitly listed as included in IDP requirements?
• Installations have base specific what that guides responses?
• Under Code 4, which activity is described?
• Which describes FPCON Bravo?
• What is the purpose of the Restricted Area Badge?
• Deadly force is force likely to cause death or great bodily harm.
• In the intelligence cycle, which step immediately follows processing?
• Who is responsible for validating and authenticating the EAL?
• Circulation Control Procedures are designed to do which of the following?
• Four critical sources for gathering intelligence.
• Code 3 applies to which situation?
• When should the rough crime scene sketch be accomplished?
• Near Peer refers to an individual who has recently gone through experiences that are one or two stages behind.
• When arriving at a crime scene, what is the immediate action?
• Which document documents authorization to access restricted areas on a military base?
• What term describes word or words used during normal conversation to indicate duress?
• RAM should be conducted for sufficient periods of time to increase the visibility and disruption of terrorist operation cycle. Which statement about RAM is true?
• In a Code 3 situation, which equipment should be used?
• What is required for an AF Form 1199 entry to be valid for restricted areas?
• What is the role of the incident commander in the contaminated site response?
• Which zone is the cold zone?
• What is the primary purpose of a crime scene sketch in field operations?
• IDP requirements include a security plan for all protection level assets and lay out plans for Critical Risk Management assets, water/power distribution centers, CDCs, base schools, commissary, etc. Which option best describes this requirement?
• OSINT refers to intelligence gathered from what type of sources?
• Which description matches FPCON Delta?
• To enter a restricted area unescorted, which combination of documents could authorize entry?
• Stop-check-pass is utilized when there is an immediate need to locate individuals who might be entering or exiting the installation. It is typically initiated during which circumstances?
• Which description best captures the purpose of the Integrated Defense Plan?
• Scenes are _____ and improper handling may result in what?
• Stop-check-pass is initiated during higher priority alarm activation, anti robbery, duress, gate runner, or when directed by whom?
• Which is a key advantage of dividing a large area into sectors or zones?
• Who has approving authority for the Integrated Defense Plan?
• Insider Threat groups include which of the following?
• Terrorism is defined as which of the following?
• Which term best describes a portable base defense operations center that can be deployed to remote or temporary locations?
• Zone and Sector Search is used for what type of area?
• The Defense Force Commander serves as installation commander's primary advisor for ID.
• Crime Scene Notes are best described as what?
• Entry Authority List (EAL) is used on a temporary basis to grant entry in conjunction with which?
• In the ID framework, who is typically the primary advisor to the installation commander on defense matters?
• What is the Contingency Plan?
• Defensive reinforcement is achieved by which action?
• Which search method is used in large outdoor areas and involves dividing the area into strips approximately 4 feet wide, with strips searched twice (strip and grid)?
• Concentric Circle is used in which settings and involves moving in clockwise circles?
• Where are response time limits for patrols defined?
• FPCON Bravo corresponds to which description?
• Security Forces role to preserve evidence includes which action?
• Which activity is associated with Code 4, related to building checks?
• In incident action planning, what is the objective described as?
• Two types of duress indicators
• Where is the AF Form 1109 typically maintained?
• Which type of intelligence utilizes information openly available to all?
• Which statement best describes FPCON Normal?
• What does Management by Objectives emphasize in incident management?
• Which badge system is described as the most secure method of limiting entry into a restricted area?
• Which term correctly names the hot zone in a three-zone approach?
• Temporary Barriers are often indicated by which demarcation line?
• Which statement correctly matches FPCON Charlie?
• Which zone is the warm zone?
• Imminent threat is best described as?
• Which of the following is NOT a critical source for gathering intelligence?
• Which system must be effective to stop active vehicle threats at access control points?
• Which term is used to describe the official log of significant events that occur during a shift?
• Code 2 describes which situation?
• What is the primary purpose of Random Antiterrorism Measures RAM?
• Active duress is characterized by
• Which document provides an understanding of security requirements for all units involved in integrated defense and describes how commanders employ available ID forces, capabilities, and concepts to accomplish the overall ID mission?
• Expeditionary BDOC is described as which of the following?
• What is the command and control center for ID operations during normal and emergency operations?
• OSINT relies on information openly available to
• What does the Single Badge System require for unescorted entry into a restricted area?
• The reasonableness of a particular use of force must be judged from the perspective of a reasonable officer.
• Which code is associated with non-emergency?
• Which source is often conducted through face-to-face interactions?
• How many MOPP levels are there?
• Near Peer is defined as an individual who has recently gone through experiences that are one or two stages behind.
• Which element is NOT typically categorized as part of the application of force three main elements?
• Which threat level has the capability of projecting combat power by air, land or sea?
• Integrated communications must support which type of links?
• Temporary Barriers are used primarily for indicating higher security levels for short periods and often involve what demarcation?
• Passive duress illustrated by which scenario?
• Large tactical force operations, airborne, amphibious, infiltration describe which threat level?
• What is the main purpose of entry/exit examinations?
• AF Form 1109 is used for what purpose?
• What base-specific plan guides actions during emergencies?
• Agents, Saboteurs, Sympathizers, Terrorists, Civil Disturbances correspond to which threat level?
• IMINT stands for Imagery Intelligence.
• Defensive reinforcement is achieved by which action?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between Crime Scene Notes and Crime Scene Sketch?
• Which document provides the framework for determining response times?
• Passive duress occurs when
• What describes the Incident Command System?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of zones at a contaminated site?
• Crime Scene Sketch should be prepared when?
• IDP requirements include a security plan for all protection level assets and lay out plans for CRMA assets, water/power distribution centers, CDCs, base schools, and commissary, etc. Which statement describes this requirement?
• Which category covers the response to tornadoes, ice storms, high winds, flooding, earthquakes, and blizzards?
• Gray Zone is described as the area between war and peace where weaker adversaries have learned how to seize territory.
• A limited release document that contains assessment data and risk tolerance is called what?
• Which term best describes an area between war and peace where weaker adversaries have learned to seize territory?
• Which information is typically required on an EAL?
• Insider Threat originates from inside assigned or attached personnel; includes host country nationals, third country nationals, etc. Which of the following best describes its source?
• Intelligence Cycle: which option describes the process of tasking collecting processing analyzing and disseminating intelligence?
• AF FM 52 Evidence Tag is used to record what?
• Which document is used to coordinate security requirements for all units and describe how commanders employ available ID forces to accomplish the ID mission?
• Temporary badges for PL-1 and PL-2 areas must never leave the restricted area. This policy applies to which PL levels?
• Integrated Communications includes which elements?
• Which characteristic should the objective of incident action planning have?
• Under Modular Organization, what drives the expansion of the organization?
• Which PL level allows badges to leave the restricted area?
• What must be considered when RAM involves Random Vehicle Inspections?
• Orientation, research, exploitation, dissemination - Intelligence cycle (Human Intelligence) Which four terms comprise the HUMINT intelligence cycle?
• Which category covers responses to hazardous materials, aircraft, explosives, and various modes of transportation?
• What is the objective of entry and circulation control procedures for restricted areas?
• The installation commander's primary advisor for ID is which role?
• Emergency Response codes are used to communicate status between which entities?
• Which statement describes the role of the Security Forces in alarm responses?
• Open-Source Intelligence (OSINT)
• Who is the lead agency for collecting signals and providing foreign signals intelligence?
• Totality of circumstance includes anything that can affect your use of force; anything that can affect your response.
• Which statement best describes Code 3?
• Which barrier type is designed to stop active vehicle threats at access control points?
• Level 3 threats correspond to which category?
• How many level threats are there
• The division of an installation into ID sectors to ensure adequate response to PL resources or mission assets is called what?
• In PL-3 restricted areas, what is the policy for badges?
• Compare Code 1 and Code 2 in terms of lighting usage.
• SF Checklists provide condensed instructions into step-by-step checklists for BDOC controllers and sentries to use. Which option lists this correctly?
• Emergency Action Plans are used for which scenarios?
• Human intelligence is intelligence gathered by means of interpersonal contact.
• Integrated Defense Goal
• Which description best captures SF duties related to buildings and emergency layouts?
• What is the first priority for the incident commander at a contaminated site?
• What does Force Protection refer to?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the OSINT four steps
• Duress alarms are used when duty personnel are forced to yield protected items to unauthorized persons.
• Which group is the enterprise leader for delivering armed responses capabilities and must respond appropriately to routine and emergency situations?
• Deliberate (covert) speed is used when which condition applies?
• Under Modular Organization, how does the organizational structure respond to incident size?
• Level 1 threat description
• What does MOPP stand for?
• Which statement correctly describes EAL validation?
• During a confirmed attack on the installation or AF resources, what is the appropriate action?
• What is the basic planning document for installation defense planning?
• Duress is best described as what?
• Which term describes the defender's effort to compel compliance, gain control, or overcome resistance?
• Immediate threat requires what kind of response?
• Which category would cover incidents involving hazardous materials, aircraft crashes, explosives, and other transportation incidents?
• Which statement best describes Code 2?
• Which option describes the requirement for EAL documentation?
• Which statement best describes FPCON Normal?
• Who determines when, where, and how to implement random checks of vehicles or pedestrians?
• Which badge system is described as the most secure method for limiting entry into a restricted area?
• FPCONs are:
• In a Code 1 situation, should lights and sirens be used?
• Which element serves as a legal and physical demarcation of the area perimeter, with warning signs placed on/near it?
• What components comprise the detection screens for surveillance around the installation?
• Direct to threat (dynamic) speed emphasizes what?
• IMINT sources example
• Access control is designed to do what in relation to protected areas?
• Base boundary sectors are used to divide installations into ID sectors to ensure adequate response to PL resources or mission assets. Which option best describes this concept?
• Integrated Defense is defined as
• Which of the following best describes the information captured on an EAL?